[Insight-users] Why is the Normalized Correlation Metric inverted?
Jonas Beuke
abbo_jonas at gmx.de
Thu Nov 21 14:33:10 EST 2013
Hi Matt,
thanks for clarifying. There should be some warning in the docs, that
this is not implemented like the mathematical definition says.
Greetings,
Jonas
<http://www.dict.cc/englisch-deutsch/clarification.html>
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